American EMT Academy Midterm Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the principle behind immobilizing a suspected fracture with splints?
• Syphilis is caused by which organism and how is it treated?
• What hallmark signs indicate internal abdominal bleeding in a trauma patient?
• In aspirin overdose, what breathing pattern is typically observed, and why?
• How does an Automated External Defibrillator guide therapy in shockable rhythms?
• For a gastric ulcer, eating tends to do which?
• When is it contraindicated to use a nasopharyngeal airway?
• If you need epi but have no epi, what should you do? Who do you call? Where do you go?
• What is the FAST stroke assessment?
• If a child chewed on an unknown plant and was now sick, who could you call to help ID the plant and guide you in treatments?
• Which statement about the nasal cannula is true?
• Which of the following is a sign of appendicitis?
• DuoDote antidotes are used for which type of exposure?
• Which term describes the gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries?
• What does the term virulent mean?
• Which measures are commonly reported to help ulcer pain?
• During treadmill exercise, which blood vessels should dilate to increase blood supply to the myocardium?
• During CPR on a patient with a preexisting implanted AED, should you shock if advised, and how should you place pads?
• According to data, over 80% of poisonings occur via which route?
• How will an EMT best determine what a woman's abdominal/vaginal complaint is caused by?
• Pelvic Inflammatory Disease long-term complications can include which conditions?
• Alkalosis is defined by which pH level?
• START triage color for Immediate (life-threatening) injuries?
• What does MOI stand for in EMS context?
• What is the primary purpose of a tourniquet in uncontrolled extremity bleeding?
• How is epinephrine administered by EMTs in the field?
• Which type of shock is most likely to present with warm, flushed skin early in the course?
• Which condition's pain can be confused with renal colic or GI pain and is described as sudden, severe, and constant?
• What mechanism is primarily responsible for the wheeze seen in anaphylactic shock?
• In aspirin overdose, what metabolic disturbance leads to the compensatory deep breathing?
• What signs suggest a diabetic crisis (DKA) vs hypoglycemia?
• How does pediatric CPR differ from adult CPR?
• Capnography helps confirm airway placement by monitoring which gas concentration?
• For a duodenal ulcer, eating tends to do which?
• What is the primary method to dilute inhaled toxins?
• Esophageal varices are most commonly caused by which condition?
• In suspected inhalation toxin exposure, what is the first priority action?
• In a SOAP note, what is the 'Assessment' component primarily used for?
• How often should you reassess a patient after applying a tourniquet?
• A disorder of carbohydrate metabolism is most commonly diagnosed as which condition?
• What are hallmark signs of heat stroke?
• What is hypoxic drive, and how does it differ from the normal stimulus to breathe?
• What vital sign patterns are typical in pediatric patients?
• Which of the following best represents what SOAP stands for in EMS documentation?
• Which describes the acid-base disturbance and compensatory respiratory response commonly seen with aspirin overdose?
• Sudden withdrawal from which substances is listed as a seizure trigger?
• What is an abnormal upper airway sound that indicates swelling?
• What is the correct technique for lifting a patient to avoid back injury?
• What action is recommended if bleeding persists after applying direct pressure?
• What is the appropriate field management for a near-drowning patient who is awake?
• Which sign is most characteristic of a sudden hemorrhagic stroke?
• Which is NOT a component of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
• Which statement best describes a generalized seizure?
• During handling of a patient with severe hypothermia, which action should be avoided?
• Differentiate myocardial infarction from angina in EMS assessment?
• Wheezing in asthma is most commonly heard during which phase of the ventilation process?
• Which of the following is NOT a major opioid or opiate drug listed?
• Approximately what percentage of poisonings are ingestion (mouth) poisons?
• What is the purpose of administering oxygen to a patient in hypoxemia?
• Which of the following is not typically a sign of stroke?
• What is the definition of index of suspicion in EMS assessment?
• Which symptom of anaphylaxis is most life-threatening according to the material?
• Which oxygen delivery device is commonly used for supplemental oxygen in EMS?
• PID is an infection of which structures?
• What is a characteristic sign of agitated delirium?
• Which drug category is commonly referred to as sedative-hypnotics?
• At what burn depth and BSA percentage should burn injuries be considered critical for EMT transport?
• In a suspected internal bleeding scenario with blunt trauma, which sign would suggest possible internal bleeding?
• Syphilis is most commonly treated with which antibiotic?
• Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) pain is best described as which?
• Glutose is a trade name for which generic drug?
• In the event of suspected hypovolemic shock, which is a key early sign?
• Which two mediators are released during an allergic reaction?
• When documenting a prehospital scene, what is the importance of establishing baseline vitals?
• In suspected pelvic injuries, what action should be prioritized to minimize further harm?
• An abdomen that is distended, rigid, and guarded over several hours suggests which deterioration?
• Which option best describes the signs of anaphylaxis and its emergency treatment?
• PID affects which organs?
• How would you describe a behavior crisis?
• What is the typical oxygen flow rate range for a nasal cannula used by EMTs?
• Which signs suggest an ectopic pregnancy requiring urgent transport?
• Know the major opioids and opiate drugs listed in your book. Which of the following is a major opioid or opiate drug?
• During obstetric emergencies in the field, what is the EMT's approach when birth is imminent?
• How should you manage a fearful, odd-acting patient who is not a danger to you?
• In the treatment of anaphylaxis, what is the primary role of epinephrine?
• How deep should chest compressions be for an average adult during CPR?
• Which oxygen delivery device is commonly used to achieve around 90% SpO2 in a COPD patient?
• Chest pain that is relieved with rest and nitroglycerin most likely indicates which condition?
• During CPR on a patient with an implanted AED, where should defibrillator pads not be placed?
• Which term describes the external expression of a patient's emotions?
• What might activated charcoal cause in some patients?
• When should a tourniquet be applied for uncontrolled extremity bleeding?
• Which statement about blood glucose and heart attack risk is true?
• What is the initial management for a patient with severe hypothermia in the field?
• Which statement best describes the role of histamines and leukotrienes in allergic reactions?
• The common iliac artery splits into internal and external iliac arteries; the external iliac continues on as which artery?
• The left hemisphere of the brain controls which side of the body?
• How should you manage suspected pelvic injuries in the field?
• How long should you hold an epinephrine autoinjector in place after administration?
• In unknown plant ingestion cases, which contacts are appropriate for guidance?
• Which of the following indicates dilation of the pupils commonly seen in sympathomimetic overdose?
• Do we give epi to a patient before we give airway/oxygen support?
• During oxygen therapy for a patient with COPD, what is a key concern to monitor?
• You encounter a severe open leg wound with heavy bleeding. What is the correct bleeding-control sequence?
• What are the two most basic physical processes that occur during respiration?
• What is a functional behavior disorder?
• What PPE is essential for EMS in patient contact?
• If an alert and oriented patient does not have a radial pulse, which pulse should you check to assess central circulation?
• Which sign indicates a rupture in suspected ectopic pregnancy requiring urgent transport?
• In trauma patients, when is spinal immobilization indicated?
• Which of the following best describes EMT actions during a mass-casualty incident?
• At what age range does menstruation typically begin?
• What is the first step in a proper scene size-up for an emergency call?
• Ischemia refers to which condition?
• In a trauma patient with suspected spinal injury, which airway technique is preferred initially?
• In a patient with a Kussmaul breathing pattern, what gas is the body attempting to eliminate?
• In two-rescuer pediatric CPR, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio?
• During the primary assessment, what is the EMT's priority?
• What are the three components of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• What is the recommended management for a generalized seizure in the field?
• In healthy individuals, which factor primarily stimulates breathing?
• Which statement is NOT a hallmark sign of heat stroke?
• Within the SAMPLE history, which component refers to what the patient has recently eaten or drank?
• What is the primary effect of CPAP on alveolar fluid in congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema?
• What are key signs of anaphylaxis requiring immediate epinephrine?
• What is the primary purpose of the EMT's role during a mass-casualty incident?
• After a seizure ends, what is the recommended patient position?
• What is the primary role of hemoglobin?
• If the heart rate is very fast (tachycardia 100–200 bpm), why might blood pressure be low?
• What is the recommended rate of chest compressions for adult CPR with two rescuers?
• What is the general effect of common sedative-hypnotics on the central nervous system?
• Which statement describes the difference in vaginal bleeding between trauma and non-traumatic causes?
• What is hemoglobin, and where is it found?
• Which antidote combination is used for organophosphate poisoning?
• What pattern of chest pain is most concerning for acute coronary syndrome?
• Which respiratory pattern is commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• In a patient with asthma/COPD in respiratory distress, what device EMTs may assist with?
• In respiratory distress due to asthma/COPD, which device may EMTs assist with?
• A generalized seizure is characterized by which features?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Stridor most commonly indicates swelling in which part of the airway?
• Which medication and dose are commonly advised for suspected cardiac chest pain in an adult per protocol?
• Before giving oral glucose to a patient, which assessment must be made?
• If aspirin is contraindicated in suspected cardiac chest pain, what should you do?
• Which item is NOT part of the FAST stroke assessment?
• Which burn criterion indicates a burn is considered critical for transport?
• In a COPD patient who is hypoxic, should you give oxygen and what SpO2 target should you aim for?
• Which two conditions are most commonly associated with chronic renal failure?
• How long should a disturbing pattern of behavior last before it's considered a problem?
• The left hemisphere of the brain primarily controls which function?
• Which statement correctly defines Behavior in behavioral health terms?
• Which statement about PPE in EMS scene safety is true?
• Which device helps keep alveoli open and can push fluid from the alveoli back into the pulmonary capillaries in congestive heart failure with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a major risk factor for heart attack in the material?
• Which of the following is a metabolic cause of seizures?
• During an allergic reaction, which ocular symptom is most typical?
• Which of the following is a traveling clot that can block cerebral blood flow?
• In obstetric emergencies, what is the EMT's role when labor begins in the field but delivery is not imminent?
• Angina pectoris typically presents as which sensation?
• Which of the following is listed as a metabolic cause of seizures?
• Which statement correctly describes when to perform a head-to-toe exam versus a focused assessment?
• What does SAMPLE represent in patient history taking?
• Is asking the 'why' question a priority when interviewing an overdose patient?
• Which of the following is a sign of a sympathomimetic overdose?
• In prehospital care, what is the purpose of capnography or end-tidal CO2 monitoring?
• Which organ filters blood and is part of the lymphatic system?
• Which of the following is a metabolic cause of seizures?
• Which sequence correctly describes airway management for an adult suspected opioid overdose?
• In a near-drowning patient who is awake, what is the primary objective of field care?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of a sympathomimetic overdose?
• What is the very first step at handling a patient with a behavior emergency?
• Which action is outside the EMT's primary responsibilities at a rape victim scene?
• Which medication is the antidote for suspected opioid overdose when respirations are inadequate?
• What is the book definition of an allergic reaction?
• What is the correct order for burn care in the field?
• Which of the following is a mental status change that can occur with hypoglycemia?
• What are key considerations when assessing an elderly patient?
• Pulse oximetry measures which of the following?
• PID occurs exclusively in which population?
• Stadol is the brand name for which drug class?
• Which factor increases the risk of CO2 retention when giving oxygen to COPD patients?
• An infectious disease is best defined as what?
• How should defibrillator pads be placed if a patient has an implanted device?
• In EMS safety, BSI stands for which concept?
• Which airway management technique should be avoided in a patient with suspected spinal trauma?
• Which burn care step is NOT recommended in the field?
• Name the components of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT).
• How should an EMT respond to a patient with suspected hypoglycemia who is conscious and able to swallow?
• What distinguishes distributive shock from hypovolemic shock in terms of skin signs?
• Which statement best describes the signs and risk factors for pulmonary embolism?
• How is naloxone indicated and administered by EMTs?
• If your patient has low oxygen saturation, breathing shallow and rapid, should they receive oxygen support to combat hypoxemia?
• What is an allergen?
• The bifurcation of the aorta into the common iliac arteries occurs approximately at the level of which anatomical landmark?